2014年2月25日星期二

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Exam Code: 1Z0-561
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle FLEXCUBE Universal Banking 11 Basic Implementation Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 76 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which definitions does Bank Parameter Maintenance allow?
A) Account Class Mask Definition
B) CIF Mask Definition
C) Product Mask Definition
D) GL Mask Definition
A. A, B, C and D
B. A, B and C
C. A, B and D
D. B and D
Answer: C

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NO.2 A bank has ICCF Rule implemented to collect its processing charges, but due to regulation changes
now it can no longer levy these charges on the transactions.
What changes are required in Oracle FLEXCUBE to implement new requirement?
A. Amend therespective products and select the "Stop Application" flag in the Charge Definition screen.
B. Unlock the ICCF Rule and delink all the attached products.
C. Reverse the ICCF Rule.
D. Delete the ICCF Rule.
Answer: D

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NO.3 In which depreciation method does the depreciation amount specified by the bank on a fixed asset does
not remain constant throughout that asset s useful life?
A. SLM
B. WDV
C. Activity Depreciation Method
D. Sum of Digits Depreciation Method
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which can be restricted for a facility?
A) Customers B) Branches C) Products D) Currencies
A. All
B. A, B and D
C. A, C and D
D. B, C and D
Answer: B

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NO.5 In which conventions is currency rounded?
A) Truncate
B) Round Up
C) Round Down
D) All the above
A. A and B
B. B and C
C. A and C
D. D
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statements are true in regards to Change Class?
A) Different Association, Application and Liquidation events will be available.
B) Different Basic Amount Tags will be available.
C) Different Third-Party Types will be available.
D) Different User-Defined Fields will be available.
A. A. and B
B. C and D
C. A and D
D. B and D
Answer: B

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NO.7 An MM Borrowing contract has been created. The contract value date is 0l-Jan-2010 and maturity date
is 31-Mar-2010. The customer has approached the bank and requested for an extension of the contract
with a maturity date of 02-Apr-2010.
From which screen of the MM module, can the extension of this contract be performed?
A. MM Rollover screen
B. MM Contract Schedule screen
C. MM Value Dated Amendment screen
D. from all of these three screens
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is true about Dormancy Days in Account Class?
A. MarkCustomer Account as Dormant as part of EOD batch process if there are no debit and
credittransactions for the number of days maintained under Dormancy Days in Account Class.
B. Close Customer Account as part of EOD batch process if there are no debit and credit
transactionsforthe number of days maintained under Dormancy Days in Account Class.
C. AutomaticallyTick No Debit and No Credit flag as part of EOD batch process if there areno debit are
credit transactions for thenumber of days maintained under Dormancy Days in Account Class.
D. Mark the customer linked to the Customer Account as Dormant.
Answer: A

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NO.9 When is the "Year-end P/L Account" (specified at the Bank level) used.?
A. when a particular GL is closed
B. whenthe GL to which year-end balancesshould be posted is not specified inAccounts
C. when all year-end transactions pertaining to Memo GL are to be posted
D. when previous year adjustment entries are to be posted
Answer: B

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NO.10 Oracle FLEXCUBE Branch Teller can perform multiple operations using the DD Teller screen. Which are
valid Teller DD operations?
A) DD issue against GL
B) DD issue against Walkin
C) DD liquidation against GL
D) DD sale against account
A. A,B and C
B. A, B, CandD
C. AandC
D. D
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1z0-591
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Business Intelligence Foundation Suite 11g Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which installation option is used to install into an existing Fusion Middleware Home?
A. Software Only Install
B. Simple Install
C. EnterpriseInstall
D. Cannot installinto an existing Fusion Middleware Home
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are the two methodologies that are followed within an OBIEE implementation?
A. Do not use prototypes
B. Use an iterative approach
C. Start with a small model and then enhance the repository
D. Start with a big repository and trim it down with the requirements
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 The highest sales amount for this year is $10,000. If you create a rank measure for sales this year
and display it on a report, the value will be________.
A. $10,000
B. 0
C. 1
D. Year
Answer: C

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NO.4 The administration tool is the developer's interface to the repository file. It allows the development
of and changes to the metadata repository file. Which statement is true?
A. Changes to the repository can only be carried out in offline mode.
B. Multiple developers can work on one repository at the same time.Results can be merged later on.
C. All aspects of security are being held in the repository file.
D. Opening the rpd.filein online mode results in performance Issues for the application user.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which option describes how OBIEE Integrates with Planning?
A. OBIEE primarily accesses Planning using standard Essbase integration techniques.
B. OBIEE provides complete access to all Planning data through the Analytic Data Model (ADM)
layer.
C. Planning is not a supported OBIEE source.
D. OBIEEintegrates with Planning directly through relational database access.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Which two components are required for all OBIEE installations?
A. Admin Server
B. RCU Schema
C. Managed Server
D. Node Manager
E. Oracle 11g
Answer: B,E

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NO.7 Which option is used to enter the rank function when creating a new rank measure?
A. Initialization Block
B. Expression Builder
C. Connection Pool
D. Web Catalog
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is an example of a Session Variable?
A. ETL Load Date
B. User Organization
C. OLAP DSN
D. Top Customers by Revenue
Answer: B

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NO.9 When a customer wants to get sales numbers by day, how is data stored in the Star Schema, if the
data is loaded nightly?
A. The lowest level of aggregation
B. The highest level of aggregation
C. Multiple levels of aggregation
D. Independently from aggregation level
Answer: B

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NO.10 Query limits tab can be accessed through________.
A. Security Manager, Query tab, Application role dialog box, Permissions
B. Security Manager, Application Roles tab, Query dialog box, Permissions
C. Security Manager, Application Roles tab, Application role dialog box, Permissions
D. Security Manager, Application Roles tab, Application role dialog box, Query Properties
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1Z0-117
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g Release 2: SQL Tuning Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 125 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which three statements are true about histograms?
A. They capture the distribution of different values in an index for better selectivity estimates.
B. They can be used only with indexed columns.
C. They provide metadata about distribution of and occurrences of values in a table column.
D. They provide improved selectivity estimates in the presence of data skew, resulting in execution
plans with uniform distribution.
E. They help the optimizer in deciding whether to use an index or a full table scan.
F. They help the optimizer to determine the fastest table join order.
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.2 Which two types of column filtering may benefit from partition pruning?
A. Equally operates on range-partitioned tables.
B. In-list operators on system-partitioned tables
C. Equality operators on system-partitioned tables
D. Operators on range-partitioned tables
E. Greater than operators on hash-partitioned tables
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 You have enabled DML by issuing: ALTER session ENABLE PARALLEL DML;
The PARELLEL_DEGREE_POLICY initialization parameter is set to AUTO.
Which two options true about DML statements for which parallel execution is requested?
A. Statements for which PDML is requested will execute serially estimated time is less than the
time specified by the PARALLEL_MIN_THRESHOLD parameter.
B. Statements for which PDML is requested will be queued if the number of busy parallel
execution servers greater than PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS parameter.
C. Statements for which PDML is requested will always execute in parallel if estimated execution
in parallel if estimated execution time is greater than the time specified bythe
PARELLEL_MIN_TIME_THRESHOLD parameter.
D. Statements for which PDML is requested will be queued if the number of busy parallel
execution servers is greater than PARELLEL_SERVERS_TARGET parameter.
E. Statement for which PDML is requested will be queued if the number of busy parallel execution
servers is greater than PARELLEL_DEGREE_LIMIT parameter.
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 Which four statements are correct about communication between parallel execution process?
A. The number of logical pathways between parallel execution producers and consumers depends
on the degree parallelism.
B. The shared pool can be used for parallel execution messages buffers.
C. The large pool can be used for parallel execution messages buffers.
D. The buffer cache can be used for parallel execution message buffers.
E. Communication between parallel execution processes is never required if a query uses full
partition-wise joins.
F. Each parallel execution process has an additional connection to the parallel execution
coordinator.
Answer: A,B,E,F

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NO.5 Which two are benefits of In-Memory Parallel Execution?
A. Reduction in the duplication of block images across multiple buffer caches
B. Reduction in CPU utilization
C. Reduction in the number of blocks accessed
D. Reduction in physical I/O for parallel queries
E. Ability to exploit parallel execution servers on remote instance
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: 1Z1-591
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Business Intelligence Foundation Suite 11g Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 The highest sales amount for this year is $10,000. If you create a rank measure for sales
this year and display it on a report, the value will be .
A. $10,000
B. 0
C. 1
D. Year
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two components are required for all OBIEE installations?
A. Admin Server
B. RCU Schema
C. Managed Server
D. Node Manager E.
Oracle 11g
Answer: B, E

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NO.3 What are the two methodologies that are followed within an OBIEE implementation?
A. Do not use prototypes
B. Use an iterative approach
C. Start with a small model and then enhance the repository
D. Start with a big repository and trim it down with the requirements
Answer: B, C

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NO.4 The administration tool is the developer's interface to the repository file. It allows the
development of and changes to the metadata repository file. Which statement is true?
A. Changes to the repository can only be carried out in offline mode.
B. Multiple developers can work on one repository at the same time.Results can be
merged later on.
C. All aspects of security are being held in the repository file.
D. Opening the rpd.filein online mode results in performance Issues for the application
user.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which installation option is used to install into an existing Fusion Middleware Home?
A. Software Only Install
B. Simple Install
C. Enterprise Install
D. Cannot install into an existing Fusion Middleware Home
Answer: A

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NO.6 When a customer wants to get sales numbers by day, how is data stored in the Star
Schema, if the data is loaded nightly?
A. The lowest level of aggregation
B. The highest level of aggregation
C. Multiple levels of aggregation
D. Independently from aggregation level
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Virtual Desktop Infrastructure 3 Essentials)
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Total Q&A: 77 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Some companies have multiple sites that are geographically separated. Users sometimes travel
from one site to another and require access to their desktops from their home VDI Center. Global
Oracle VDI Centers____________.
A. allow VMs tobe"hot" migratedbetween in a data center
B. have nothing to do with geographically separatedVDIcontort and are used as an administration
tool, providingasingle point of administration for allVDIenvironments for multipleindependent
companies
C. enable a singleVDIenvironment to host Desktop as a Service (DaaS) for multiple independent
organizations
D. extend the "hotdesking"experience of asingle VDI environment to encompass multiple
VDIenvironments
Answer: D

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NO.2 After setting up the user directory on your Oracle VDI center, you are told that the security
level
needs to be changed. If you have already chosen the connection type, is it still possible to change
the security level?
A. Yes, you can change the sosecuritylevel, but onlyif you have defined additional fallback hosts.
B. Yes, it is possible to change the security level, but only if additional Fallback hosts have not
yetbeen defined.
C. Yes,it is possible to change the security level, but only if you are using AD.
D. No,itis notpossible tochangethe securitylevels in either LDAP or Active Directory.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Users cannot log in to their desktops and after investigation it seems to have started right after
the
primary LDAP server went offline. What settings need to be the same on the primary LDAP server
and backup LDAP server so that VDI will continue to operate?
A. Thesame security level, TCP port, base dim, and credentials
B. Thesame hostname,LDAP server, MAC address, and baseDN
C. The sameDNSname, baseDN, SSLcertificates,andversion ofLDAP
D. The same toot password, base DN, SSI certificates, and forest configuration
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two methods can be used to create specific group of users that can be assigned to a
pool
of desktop in Oracle VDI?
A. Createanow directory group on theLDAPor ADserver
B. Create a custom group filter within the Oracle to VDI Center
C. Create a custom group by using the Sun Ray server AdministrationGUI
D. Add specificusernames to the Group key in the MySQLdatabase
E. Create a now groupin /etc/groups and add user names to it
Answer: B,C

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5. You have two Sun Rays with MAC addresses AAA and BBB. You would like to configure them to
form a multi-head (twin monitor) group. Which command would you use to achieve this?
A. vdimhadm –a MySRGroup –p AAA –s BBB
B. utmhadm –a MySRGroup –p AAA -1 AAA,BBB
C. utmhconfig –a MySRGroup –p AAA -1 AAA,BBB
D. utmhadm –a MySRGroup -1 AAA ; utmhadm –a MySRGroup -1 BBB
Answer: B

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6. Which three platforms are supported for the Oracle Virtual Desktop client?
A. Windows 7
B. Wyse OS
C. iPad iOS
D. Solaris 10
E. Apple Mac OS X
Answer: A,C,E

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7. From a CLI, which command will display a detailed view of the backup command syntax?
A. /opt/sun/cacao2 /bin/cacaoadm –h
B. /opt/SUNWvda/sbin/vda-center –h
C. /opt/SUNWvda/sbin/vda-backup –h
D. /opt/SUNWvda/sbin/vda –h
Answer: C

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8. Oracle VDI can be operated with or without smart cards. By default it configured for both card
and
non-card sessions. How do you require smart cards and deny users without smart cards? Identity
the two correct answers.
A. Using the command utpolicy in theCLI
B. Using the kiosk mode pagein the Sun Ray Webadmin GUI to enable the session type
C. Using the kiosk mode script when the smart card is inserted
D. Using the system policy page In the Sun Ray Webadmin GUI to change the policy
Answer: B

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A. It connects to a pool of virtual machines with a RDP service.
B. It connects to any virtual or any physical machine with a RDP service.
C. It connects to any physical machine regardless of operating system.
D. It connects to any virtual or any physical machine with a VNC service.
Answer: B

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10. The Sun Ray Components for Windows help to accelerate Flash and Video content. When
using
Windows XP , which three statements are true regarding media acceleration?
A. Supported file-based playback can only be viewed with Windows Media Player.
B. Thefollowing codecs are supported on RDP connection with WindowsXPdesktops:MPEG-
2,H.264, VC-1
C. To ensure thatH.264 video streams are accelerated properly, you need to download and install
athird partyorfreeware solution on theWindowsVM.
D. The Multimediaenhancementsare only supportedfor the Sun Ray 3 series of hardware clients.
E. The sun Ray1series hardwareclientsuse the firmware to decode and output the media.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.1 In your solution, a web service client needs to invoke a series of three web services in support
of a single transaction. The third web service needs the identity of the original web service client.
Which statement describes how the identity is made available by Oracle Web Services Manager
(OWSM)?
A. The transaction manager accesses an internal table that maintains credentials used to invoke
each individual web service in the chain.
B. Each web service in the chain does its own authentication so the third web service handles its
own identity checking.
C. OWSM sets the user in the Java Authentication and Authorization (JAAS) Subject when the first
web service successfully authenticates, and the Java Subject is used by subsequent web services to
access the identity.
D. OWSM stores a SAML token from the first web service invocation in a database table, and that
table is accessed by subsequent web services in the chain to retrieve identity.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Oracle Web Services Manager is a component of the Oracle Enterprise Manager Fusion Middleware
Control, a run-time framework that provides centralized management and governance of Oracle
SOA Suite environments and applications. You create and configureOracle Web Services Manager
policies in Oracle Enterprise Manager, and those policies are persisted in a policy store (a database
is recommended). Oracle Web Services Manager lets you define policies against an LDAP directory
and generate standard security tokens (such as SAML tokens) to propagate identities across multiple
Web services used in a single transaction.

NO.2 A partner needs to access services that are defined in one of your Service Composite
Architecture (SCA) applications via a web service interface. Which approach (and accompanying
reasoning) describes a loosely coupled and robust solution?
A. Use Oracle Service Bus to provide an Interface layer over your SCA application. This enables you
to hide the locations of your SCA application, perform load-balancing across those endpoints, and
provide the ability to define service level agreements to help ensure that you are meeting your
contractual obligations to the partner.
B. Use the Mediator component to provide a web service interface to your SCA application. This
arrives you the flexibility of using the industry standard XSLT technology to perform translation and
transformations.
C. Use Oracle Service Bus to provide an interface layer over your SCA application. This enables you
to "skin" your SCA application with a web service interface and still provide a robust experience to
the partner.
D. Allow the partner simply to connect directly to the SCA application. This provides the best
performance and helps keep the partner happy.
Answer: B

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NO.3 When more than one policy is attached to a policy subject, the combination of policies needs
to be valid. Which statement is true about the valid combination of policies for a policy subject?
A. Only one MTOM policy can be attached to a policy subject.
B. More than one Reliable Messaging policy can be attached to a policy subject.
C. Both a Reliable Messaging policy and a WS-Addressing policy cannot be attached to the same
policy subject.
D. Only one security policy can be attached to a policy subject.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Note:
*Within a SOA composite application, you must attach the Oracle WS-MTOM policy to service and
reference binding components to receive and send MTOM (MIME binary) attachments within
Oracle SOA Suite.
*Message Transmission Optimization Mechanism (MTOM)
Ensures that attachments are in MTOM format. This format enables binary data to be sent to and
from web services. This reduces the transmission size on the wire.
*ReliabilityPolicy
Supports the WS-Reliable Messaging protocol. This guarantees the end-to-end delivery of
messages.
* Addressing Policy Verifies that simple object access protocol (SOAP) messages include
WS-Addressing headers in conformance with the WS-Addressing specification. Transport-level data
is included in the XML message rather than relying on the network-level transport to convey this
information.

NO.4 You expand a business rule component that a colleague added to the BPEL process. You see an
Assign element named Facts_To_Rule_Service.
Which statement is true bout this Assign element?
A. It was added automatically based on entries that your colleague made in the dialog box that
approved when the business rule component was added to the BPEL model.
B. Your colleague manually added this Assign element after adding the business rule component to
the BPEL Model.
C. This Assign element was automatically added when your colleague manually addedthe
corresponding Rule_Service_To_Facts assign to the BPEL model.
D. You can delete this Assign because it was created for documentation purposes only.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Note: *Facts_To_Rule_Service: Assigns the facts to a variable.

NO.5 Composite X invokes an outbound DB adapter to write data to a database table. You have
configured JCA at the binding component as follows:
<property name = "jca.retry.count" type = "xs:int" many = "false" override = "may" > 2</property>
<property name = "jca.retry.interval" type = "xs:int" many = "false" override = "may" > 2</property>
You have also modeled a modeled a fault policy to retry the invocation three times in case of
remoteFault as follows:
<retryCount>3<retryCount>
<retryInterval>3<retryInterval>
Which result describes what happens when the database that is being accessed by the above
binding component goes down?
A. The invocation is retrieved for a total of two times every two seconds. Fault policy retries are
ignored.
B. The invocation is retried for a total of six times every three seconds.
C. The invocation is retried for a total of six times every two seconds.
D. The fault policy retries occur within the JCA retries. So two JCA retries are executed two seconds
apart. Within each JCA retry, three fault policy retries are executed three seconds apart.
E. The JCA retries occur within the fault policy retries. So three fault policy retries are executed
three seconds apart. Within each fault policy retry, two JCA retries are executed two seconds apart.
Answer: E

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Explanation:
Note: *Global retries for any error handling are returned to the BPEL Receive activity instance, for
example, or, more generally, to the point at which the transaction started. Such a retry could occur
if there was an error such as a temporary database fault. The default retry count is by default
indefinite, or specified in the jca.retry.count property.
*Properties you can specify in the composite.xml file include:
/jca.retry.count
Specifies the maximum number of retries before rejection. Again, specifying this value is a pre-
requisite to specifying the other property values.
/jca.retry.interval
Specifies the time interval between retries (measured in seconds.)
*A remoteFault is also thrown inside an activity. It is thrown because the invocation fails. For
example, a SOAP fault is returned by the remote service.

NO.6 Identify two features of Oracle BAM.
A. Enterprise Manager's monitoring capabilities are central to Oracle BAM's ability to monitor
performance indicators.
B. You can analyze and present Information from activities spanning multiple systems and
applications.
C. Rich browser-based dashboards provide visibility into current values of key performance
indicators (KPIs).
D. There is a built-in trouble ticket system to track assignment and completion of corrective actions.
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
Note: *Oracle Business Activity Monitoring (Oracle BAM) gives business executives the ability to
monitor their business services and processes in the enterprise, to correlate KPIs down to the actual
business process themselves, and most important, to change business processes quickly or to take
corrective action if the business environment changes.

NO.7 Which two features are provided by decision tables?
A. Sets of input data can be bucketed and reviewed for gaps.
B. Data sets can be reviewed for conflicts.
C. Data can be used for only one rule evaluation.
D. A rule evaluation can be used only to enter new output data.
Answer: A,B

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Explanation:
After you create a Decision Table there are operations that you may want to perform on the
Decision Table, including the following:
(A)Find and fix gaps in a Decision Table (B)Finding and resolving conflicts between rules in a
Decision Table Compact or split cells in a Decision Table Merge a condition or split a condition in a
Decision Table
A: *Compact the Decision Table
In this step you compact the rules to merge from eighteen rules to nine rules. This automatically
eliminates the rules that are not needed and preserves the no gap, no conflict properties for the
Decision Table.
*The Conditions area in a Decision Table includes one or more condition rows. Each condition row
has a condition expression and, for each rule, a condition cell. A condition expression is an
expression that you build in Rules Designer. The condition expression is often a fact property or a
function result, but it can be any expression that has a type that can be associated with a bucketset.
B:A Decision Table displays multiple related rules in a single spreadsheet-style view. In Rules
Designer a Decision Table presents a collection of related business rules with condition rows, rules,
and actions presented in a tabular form that is easy to understand. Business users can compare cells
and their values at a glance and can use Decision Table rule analysis features by clicking icons and
selecting values in Rules Designer to help identify and correct conflicting or missing cases.

NO.8 Identify two correct descriptions of Oracle Web Services Manager (OWSM).
A. It enables you to externalize web services security from the applications youbuild.
B. It manages policies in a distributed policy manager that serves as a single policy enforcement
point.
C. Use security and management events, captured by OWSM agents, are displayed using Oracle
BAM.
D. It supplies predefined security policies that enable declarative security and management
definition.
E. It uses Oracle Event Processing (OEP) to determine when security violations have occurred.
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
Note: *Oracle WSM allows companies to (1) centrally define and store declarative policies applied
to the multiple web services making up a SOA infrastructure, (2) locally enforce security and
management policies through configurable agents, and (3) monitor runtime security events such as
failed authentication or authorization.
*Oracle Web Services Manager offers a comprehensive and easy-to-use solution for policy
management and security of service infrastructure. It provides visibility and control of the policies
through a centralized administration interface offered by Oracle Enterprise Manager.

NO.9 Which two approaches are valid when using dynamic partner links in a BPEL process?
A. A WSDL file, which contains multiple services that use the same portType, is available at design
time, but the decision to determine which service is used can only be made at runtime.
B. When the BPEL process is designed, the endpoint URL of the WSDL file is known but the services
and port types are not known.
C. When the BPEL process is designed, the services and port types of the WSDL file are known but
the endpoint URI is not known.
D. A WSDL file, which contains multiple services that use different portTypes, is available at design
time, but the decision to determine which server us used can only be made at runtime.
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
A (not D):How To Create a Dynamic Partner Link at Design Time for Use at Runtime
To create a dynamic partner link at design time for use at runtime:
etc
C (not B):The BPEL specification mandates that only the partner endpoint reference (EPR) can be
changed dynamically. In BPEL terms, only the partnerRole of a partner link element can have a new
value assigned. The myRole value doesn't change after the BPEL has been deployed.
Note: *Dynamic Partner Links and Dynamic Addressing During the design-time of an application,
you may need to configure certain services whose endpoints (addresses) are not known beforehand,
or it may be necessary to change an endpoint reference while the application is running. The
Dynamic Partner link feature allows you to dynamically assign an endpoint reference to the partner
link. This means that you can use onepartner link for subsequent calls to different web-services
(provided that the services use the same interface). *For successful deployment of the process, a
partner link should be completely defined. When you deploy the project, the WSDL file for the
partner link should contain and define both the abstract and the concrete information for the
partner link, including address and port, though later the concrete information can be changed
independently from the WSDL file.

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NO.1 Constraints are shown using what symbols?
A. [ ]
B. ( )
C. { }
D. ?"
E. " "
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is a relationship in UML 2.0?
A. the state of being related
B. an element that has no derived union
C. an element that has no derived composition
D. an element that must have two owned elements
E. an element that specifies a connection between elements
Answer: E

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NO.3 A property is a feature that can be represented in what ways? (Choose two)
A. as an association
B. as an association end
C. as an attribute in a class
D. as an operation in a class
E. as an indication of whether the feature is public or private
Answer: BC

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NO.4 What does an association specify?
A. tuples that are not links
B. relationship among models
C. links between associated types
D. links between instances of associated types
E. links between instances of untyped classes
Answer: D

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NO.5 What are the association end names in the exhibit?
A. Person and Order
B. customer and Order
C. 1 and *
D. 1, *, customer, and Order
E. 1, *, customer, order, Person, and Order
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is true of the black diamond on the diagram? (Choose two)
A. A Line Item cannot be removed from its Order.
B. A Line Item may only be included in one Order at a time.
C. If an Order is deleted, its Line Item instances normally still remain.
D. If an Order is deleted, its Line Item instances are normally deleted.
E. A Line Item may only be included in more than one Order at a time.
Answer: BD

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NO.7 What is true about every named element that is a member of a namespace?
A. It is owned by the namespace.
B. It has one unique name within the namespace.
C. It is identified by its name within the namespace.
D. It can be distinguished from other members in the namespace.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is an element in UML 2.0?
A. member of a set
B. instance of a class
C. constituent of a model
D. abstract metaclass with only one superclass
E. substance not separable by ordinary chemical means
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is an expression in UML 2.0?
A. comment placed on a diagram
B. symbol or symbols signifying a set of value
C. graphical addition to a diagramming element
D. language-specific string used to describe the meaning of a diagram
E. language-specific text string used to describe the contents of a diagram
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the meaning of the subsets constraint in the diagram?
A. D is a subclass of B.
B. D contains a subset of instances of C.
C. The collection of b is a subset of the collection of d for each A.
D. The collection of d is a subset of the collection of b for each C.
E. The collection of c is a subset of the collection of b for each D.
Answer: D

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NO.11 What does a <<use>> dependency mean in a relationship between one element and another?
A. specifies how it uses another element
B. specifies how it realizes another element
C. specifies how one element implements another element
D. requires another element for its full implementation or operation
Answer: D

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NO.12 What are some of the important semantics of packages? (Choose three)
A. A class may be owned by multiple packages.
B. An element may be owned by at most one package.
C. The public contents of a package are accessible outside the package.
D. The public contents of a package are not accessible outside the package.
E. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are removed.
F. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are reassigned.
Answer: BCE

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NO.13 What does it mean when a classifier rectangle is labeled as an <<enumeration>>?
A. The list of all public and private features is provided.
B. The classifier is an iterator for traversing a collection.
C. The list of all public and private structural features is suppressed.
D. The classifier is a data type whose values are possibly listed in the bottom compartment.
Answer: D

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NO.14 What does the arrow end of a dependency relationship indicate?
A. more general classifier
B. element initiates communication
C. whole in a whole-part relationship
D. client element is affected by a change in the supplier element
E. supplier element is unaffected by a change in the client element
Answer: E

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NO.15 What does an {ordered} designator do for a multiplicity?
A. specifies that values are sequentially ordered
B. specifies an inclusive interval of non-negative integers
C. indicates the correct sequence of messages in a sequence diagram
D. indicates that the upper bound must be greater than the lower bound for the multiplicity
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is true about a comment in UML 2.0? (Choose two)
A. is shown as a note symbol
B. must be attached to at most one element
C. contains only machine-readable symbols
D. can be attached to more than one element
E. connections are always shown with a dashed line
Answer: AD

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NO.17 What statements are true of the <<permit>> dependency in the exhibit? (Choose two)
A. X can access only the baz property of W.
B. X can access the baz and quux properties of W.
C. X can access only the quux property of W.
D. W can access only the foo property of X.
E. W can access the foo and bar properties of X.
F. W can access only the bar property of X.
Answer: BF

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NO.18 In the exhibit, what is the meaning of size in these two diagrams?
A. Only one or the other should be used, not both, in order to avoid a name conflict.
B. The size end name on the association indicates data storage and the attribute does not.
C. There is one size property diagrammed both as an attribute and as an association end.
D. There are two size properties that have no name conflict as long as each size is private.
E. The size attribute in the class indicates that it will be stored within the class and the end name does
not.
Answer: C

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NO.19 What is true of the import example in the exhibit?
A. Webshop is imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary and Types.
B. Auxiliary and Types are imported into ShoppingCart, but neither can be further imported into WebShop.
C. Public members of WebShop are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary
or Types.
D. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into
WebShop.
E. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and those from Types are
further imported into WebShop.
Answer: E

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NO.20 The instance diagram in the exhibit contains father and son without underlines. What is the meaning of
this?
A. The Don class is a superclass of the Josh class.
B. An association having end names father and son.
C. The diagram is a mixture of class and instance diagrams.
D. A link of an association having end names father and son.
E. The names are incorrectly specified, because underlined names are required.
Answer: D

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