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Exam Code: 156-215-75
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Administrator)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 531 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 UDP packets are delivered if they are _________.
A. A legal response to an allowed request on the inverse UDP ports and IP
B. A Stateful ACK to a valid SYN-SYN-/ACK on the inverse UDP ports and IP
C. Reference in the SAM related Dynamic tables
D. Bypassing the Kernel by the forwarding layer
of clusterXL
Answer: A

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NO.2 When Jon first installed the system, he forgot to configure DNS servers on his
Security Gateway.
How could Jon configure DNS servers now that his Security Gateway is in production?
A. Login to the firewall using SSH and run cpconfig, then select Domain Name Servers.
B. Login to the firewall using SSH and run fwm, then select System Configuration and
Domain Name
Servers.
C. Login to the SmartDashboard, edit the firewall Gateway object, select the tab Interfaces,
then Domain
Name Servers.
D. Login to the firewall using SSH and run sysconfig, then select Domain Name Servers.
Answer: D

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NO.3 When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management
Server with which
other Check Point architecture component?
A. SecureClient
B. Security Gateway
C. SmartConsole
D. None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself
Answer: B

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NO.4 How can you recreate the account of the Security Administrator, which was created
during initial
installation of the Management Server on SecurePlatform?
A. Launch cpconfig and delete the Administrator's account. Recreate the account with the
same name.
B. Export the user database into an ASCII file with fwm dbexport. Open this file with an
editor, and delete
the Administrator Account portion of the file. You will be prompted to create a new account.
C. Type cpm -a, and provide the existing Administrator's account name. Reset the Security
Administrator's password.
D. Launch SmartDashboard in the User Management screen, and delete the cpconfig
administrator.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Once installed, the R75 kernel resides directly below which layer of the OSI model?
Note: Application
is the top and Physical is the bottom of the IP stack.
A. Network
B. Transport
C. Data Link
D. Session
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is TRUE about management plug-ins?
A. The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.
B. A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new
features and
support for new products.
C. Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to
specific features of
the plug-in.
D. Installing a management plug-in is just like an upgrade process. (It overwrites existing
components.)
Answer: B

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NO.7 During which step in the installation process is it necessary to note the fingerprint for
first-time
verification?
A. When establishing SIC between the Security Management Server and the Gateway
B. When configuring the Security Management Server using cpconfig
C. When configuring the Security Gateway object in SmartDashboard
D. When configuring the Gateway in the WebUl
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements about Bridge mode is TRUE.?
A. When managing a Security Gateway in Bridge mode, it is possible to use a bridge
interface for Network
Address Translation.
B. Assuming a new installation, bridge mode requires changing the existing IP routing of the
network.
C. All ClusterXL modes are supported.
D. A bridge must be configured with a pair of interfaces.
Answer: D

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NO.9 R75's INSPECT Engine inserts itself into the kernel between which two layers of the
OSI model?
A. Presentation and Application
B. Physical and Data
C. Session and Transport
D. Data and Network
Answer: D

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NO.10 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2003
server as the
SmartConsole and a second server running SecurePlatform as both Security Management
Server and
the Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Unsupported configuration.
B. Hybrid Installation.
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Stand-Alone Installation.
Answer: D

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NO.11 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows XP
workstation as the
SmartConsole, one Solaris server working as Security Management Server, and a third
server running
SecurePlatform as Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Stand-Alone Installation.
B. Unsupported configuration
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Hybrid Installation.
Answer: C

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NO.12 How can you most quickly reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between a
Security
Management Server and Security Gateway?
A. Run the command fwm sic-reset to initialize the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) of the
Security
Management Server. Then retype the activation key on the Security Gateway from
SmartDashboard.
B. Use SmartDashboard to retype the activation key on the Security Gateway. This will
automatically
Sync SIC to both the Security Management Server and Gateway.
C. From cpconfig on the Gateway, choose the Secure Internal Communication option and
retype the
activation key. Next, retype the same key in the Gateway object in SmartDashboard and
reinitialize
Secure Internal Communications (SIC).
D. From the Security Management Server s command line, Type fw putkey p <shared key> <
IP Address
of security Gateway>.
Answer: C

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NO.13 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2003
server as
SmartConsole and Security Management Server with a second server running
SecurePlatform as
Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Hybrid Installation.
B. Unsupported configuration.
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Stand-Alone Installation.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Of the three mechanisms Check Point uses for controlling traffic, which enables
firewalls to incorporate
layer 4 awareness in packet inspection?
A. IPS
B. Packet filtering
C. Stateful Inspection
D. Application Intelligence
Answer: C

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NO.15 You are installing a Security Management Server. Your security plan calls for three
administrators for
this particular server. How many can you create during installation?
A. Depends on the license installed on the Security Management Server
B. Only one with full access and one with read-only access
C. One
D. As many as you want
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track remote administrative
activities?
A. WebUI
B. Eventia Reporter
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

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NO.17 The Check Point Security Gateway's virtual machine (kernel) exists between which two
layers of the
OSI model?
A. Session and Network layers
B. Application and Presentation layers
C. Physical and Datalink layers
D. Network and Datalink layers
Answer: D

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NO.18 The customer has a small Check Point installation, which includes one Linux
Enterprise 3.0 server
working as the SmartConsole, and a second server running Windows 2003 as both Security
Management
Server running Windows 2003 as both Security Management Server and Security Gateway.
This is an
example of a(n).
A. Stand-Alone Installation
B. Distributed Installation
C. Hybrid Installation
D. Unsupported configuration
Answer: D

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NO.19 You are running the Security Gateway on SecurePlatform and configure SNX with
default settings. The
client fails to connect to the Security Gateway. What is wrong?
A. The routing table on the client does not get modified.
B. The client has Active-X blocked.
C. The client is configured incorrectly.
D. The SecurePlatform Web User Interface is listening on port 443.
Answer: D

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NO.20 You are a security architect and need to design a secure firewall, VPN and IPS
solution. Where would
be the best place to install IPS in the topology if the internal network is already protected?
A. On the firewall itself to protect all connected networks centrally.
B. On each network segment separately.
C. On the LAN is enough, the DMZ does not need to be protected.
D. In front of the firewall is enough.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: CAT-240
Exam Name: CA (CA Clarity PPM v12 Business Analyst Exam)
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Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 What are the three classifications of Chargeback rules? (Choose three)
A. Recovery rules
B. Overhead rules
C. Time-based rules
D. Standard Debit rules
E. Investment-specific Debit rules
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.2 The Financial Status determines how transactions entered against a project are handled. If you set the
status to Hold, then:
A. The project is no longer open for financial processing.
B. Transactions can be fully processed within the system.
C. New transactions cannot accumulate and credit memos cannot be issued against a project.
D. New transactions cannot accumulate but existing transactions can be processed against the project.
Answer: D

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NO.3 There are two fields on the Resource Profile that must be set appropriately to help ensure a resource
can enter time through the CA Clarity timesheets. What are the two fields?
A. Category and Active
B. Track Mode and Category
C. Track Mode and Open for Time Entry
D. Open for Time Entry and Employee Type
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is a valid reason to use the Transaction Entry functionality?
A. Modify existing transactions
B. View the pro forma invoice for a customer
C. Enter additional transactions to the system that were not entered through timesheets
D. View the data from timesheets that have been posted through the Post to Financials job option
Answer: C

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NO.5 CA Clarity PPM and the supported scheduling tools enable you to plan detailed schedules by adjusting
variables that affect how work is scheduled. Which variable determines the distribution of work over a
period.?
A. Task Type
B. Start - Finish
C. Loading Pattern
D. Resource Max Load Percentage
Answer: C

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Exam Code: CAT-380
Exam Name: CA (CA ARCserve Backup r16.x Administrator Certification Exam)
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Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 To enable enhanced User Profile Manager, role management, and Windows account support,
on
the primary server, you need to install the CA ARCserve Backup:
A. Standard module.
B. Advanced module.
C. Enterprise module.
D. Enterprise Plus module.
Answer: C

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NO.2 After you complete the Diagnostic Wizard in the CA ARCserve Backup Diagnostic Utility, a file
is
created. In which GUI do you view this file?
A. Report Manager
B. Job Status Manager
C. Diagnostic Log Manager
D. Diagnostic Report Manager
Answer: D

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NO.3 When backing up SharePoint Server data using the CA ARCserve Backup Agent for Microsoft
SharePoint, how is the backup initiated?
A. SharePoint Server sends a request to the Agent for Microsoft SharePoint.
B. The Agent for Microsoft SharePoint sends a request to SharePoint Server.
C. CA ARCserve Backup Server sends a request to the Agent for Microsoft SharePoint.
D. The Agent for Microsoft SharePoint sends a request to CA ARCserve Backup Server.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement about Restore by Image is TRUE?
A. It is included in all CA ARCserve Backup r16 modules.
B. The Restore by Image sessions can be restored to network drives.
C. During a Restore by Image session, files can be open but they are still overwritten.
D. Selecting multiple sources is only permitted when using the Restore to Original Location option.
Answer: D

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NO.5 How can you limit the servers that are authorized to perform backups on a Windows client
agent
object?
A. Configure password security.
B. Set the Backup Priority to High.
C. Generate an access control list (ACL).
D. Change the port number used by the agent.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Some application programs can cache file writes on the workstation on which they are run.
How
can you prevent resulting data integrity issues when using the Agent for Open Files?
A. Disable retry mechanisms in your backup program.
B. Enable Extended Features in the Agent for Open Files.
C. Configure the application, if possible, to prevent write caching.
D. Enable Auto Sense in the Sync Method section of the Agent for Open Files.
Answer: C

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NO.1 Within a storage pool, Xsan stripes data over _______.
A.LUNs
B.volumes
C.disks
D.affinities
Correct:A

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NO.2 Which application allows you to monitor the status of disks within Xserve RAID LUNs?
A.Activity Monitor
B.Disk Utility
C.RAID Admin
D.Xsan Admin
Correct:C

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NO.3 Which statement is implied by the concept called "information lifecycle management"?
A.All information should be backed up in a weekly cycle.
B.Disk-to-disk backup should be used for archival information.
C.Information should be regularly cycled between backup devices.
D.Storage resources should be allocated according to importance of data.
Correct:D

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NO.4 Xsan is a _______ file system.
A.local
B.cluster
C.network
D.distributed
Correct:B

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NO.5 Indicate the correct port settings when you configure an Emulex 355 switch for Xsan.
A.Host machine ports set as "Initiator with Stealth" and storage device ports set as "Target with Stealth."
B.Host machine ports set as "Target with Stealth" and storage device ports set as "Initiator with Stealth."
C.Both host machine ports and storage device ports set as "Initiator with Stealth."
D.Both host machine ports and storage device ports set as "Target with Stealth."
Correct:A

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NO.6 RAID Admin LUN mapping and masking features allow you to _______.
A.create folders that map data to a specified LUN or LUNs
B.create LUNs that are available to only one client
C.create LUNs that consist of a single dedicated drive
D.add more disks to a LUN without taking the array offline
Correct:B

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NO.7 Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop addresses use only the _________ field of Fabric Address Space.
A.Area
B.Domain
C.Loop
D.Port
Correct:D

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NO.8 To view the WWPNs for an Apple Fibre Channel PCI-X card, use __________.
A.Xsan Admin
B.Fibre Channel Utility
C.RAID Utility
D.cvadmin
Correct:B

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NO.9 When naming an Xsan volume, which TWO statements are true? (Choose TWO.)
A.Any low-ASCII character can be used.
B.Only letters and numbers can be used.
C.Only lowercase letters and numbers can be used.
D.Only uppercase letters and numbers can be used.
E.Volume names can be up to 16 characters in length.
F.Volume names can be up to 70 characters in length.
G.Volume names can be up to 256 characters in length.
Correct:B F

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NO.10 What is the recommended topology setting for the Apple Fibre Channel PCI-X card?
A.Automatic
B.Point-to-point
C.Arbitrated loop
D.Switched fabric
Correct:A

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Exam Code: 9L0-607
Exam Name: Apple (System Administration Using Mac)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 86 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 You are configuring Mac OS X Server to authorize users stored on an Active Directory server.
You need to ________ and ________. (Choose TWO.)
A.generate and install keytabs
B.configure the Active Directory plug-in
C.use slurpd to import Active Directory users to your local LDAP database
D.configure Open Directory to emulate Active Directory properties in the LDAPv3 database
E.use Workgroup Manager to include properties required by Open Directory in the Active Directory
database
Correct:A B

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button and study the network diagram, then answer the question below. You
administer the server with IP addresses 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.0.11. You have configured its two
network interfaces in Network Preferences. Which TWO additional steps must you take on your
server to ensure that the workstation at 10.1.1.2 can communicate with the server at 10.1.0.1, even
if the server at 10.1.1.1 is restarted? (Choose TWO.)
A.Enable IP forwarding with sysctl.
B.Add a static route for network 10.1.0/24.
C.Add a static route for network 10.1.1/24.
D.Enable IP forwarding from Server Admin.
E.Set the IPFORWARDING flag in /etc/hostconfig to -YES-.
Correct:A E

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NO.3 Which are valid SMTP commands that you might use in a Telnet session when testing your mail
server? (Choose all that apply.)
A.mail from:
B.mail to:
C.rcpt from:
D.rcpt to:
E.relay from:
F.relay to:
Correct:A D

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NO.4 On Mac OS X Server 10.3, which feature in amd represents an improvement over automount?
A.graphical user interface
B.support of AFP and NFS
C.integration with directory services
D.support of industry-standard mount maps
Correct:D

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NO.5 Server Monitor does NOT provide status information for which Xserve component?
A.blower
B.hard drive
C.power supply
D.fibre channel link
Correct:D

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Exam Code: 9L0-400
Exam Name: Apple (Mac OS X Help Desk Essentials v10.3)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 81 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 .Which command is found on Mac OS X v10.3, as well as on other versions of UNIX?
A. system_profiler
B. open
C. ls
D. ditto
Answer: C

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NO.2 .Mac OS X v10.3 Internet Sharing lets you share your Internet connection with other users via
________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. AirPort
B. Ethernet
C. Bluetooth
D. Modem
E. USB
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 .To set up PPPoE, which port must you configure?
A. AppleTalk
B. Ethernet
C. FireWire
D. Modem
Answer: B

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NO.4 .About which THREE system properties will System Profiler provide information? (Choose
THREE.)
A. installed PCI cards
B. default network printer
C. configured share points
D. connected USB devices
E. connected FireWire devices
F. status of personal file sharing
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.5 .Which THREE tasks can you perform with Disk Utility? (Choose THREE.)
A. Erase a CD-RW disk.
B. Determine disk usage by user name.
C. Verify and repair a UFS-formatted disk.
D. Create an encrypted partition on a hard disk.
E. Discover details about top-level directories on a FireWire disk drive.
F. Discover details about a FireWire disk drive such as size and configuration.
Answer: A,C,F

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NO.6 In Mac OS X v10.3, you CANNOT use the Finder's "Connect to Server" command to select
________.
A. your iDisk
B. SSH servers
C. WebDAV servers
D. AFP servers
Answer: B

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NO.7 .Dynamic service discovery protocols on Mac OS X v10.3 include ________. (Choose all that
apply.)
A. Active Directory
B. Rendezvous
C. AppleTalk
D. NetInfo
E. LDAP
F. SMB
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.8 .Mac OS X v10.3 can only be installed on ________-formatted volumes. (Choose all that apply.)
A. HFS Plus
B. FAT32
C. NTFS
D. HFS
E. UFS
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 .You are currently in the same directory as a file called "file 1". To view this file contents from the
command line you can type ________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. cat file 1
B. cat file\1
C. cat file \1
D. cat file\ 1
E. cat "file 1"
Answer: D,E

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NO.10 .By default in Mac OS X v10.3, the contents of which folders in a user home directory can be
accessed by all other user accounts? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Documents
B. Library
C. Public
D. Music
E. Sites
Answer: C,E

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NO.11 .Mac OS X v10.3 supports which kinds of VPN connections? (Choose all that apply.)
A. PPoE
B. L2TP
C. PPTP
D. NAT
E. P2P
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 .In a default Mac OS X v10.3 configuration, which TWO methods will launch the Classic
environment? (Choose TWO.)
A. Select the Mac OS 9 System Folder in the Startup Disk pane of System Preferences and
restart.
B. Launch SimpleText from the Applications (Mac OS 9) folder.
C. Click Start in the Classic pane of System Preferences.
D. Open the /System/Library/Classic/Startup file.
E. Launch TextEdit from the Dock.
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 .Which statement about FileVault is TRUE?
A. FileVault can only be enabled for non-administrator user accounts.
B. Once a user enables FileVault, it cannot be disabled.
C. There is no way to recover a FileVault-protected account user data if the password is lost.
D. When a user enables FileVault, that user home directory is transferred into an encrypted disk
image.
Answer: D

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NO.14 .In Mac OS X v10.3, the default permissions for Group and Others on the Drop Box folder in a user
Public folder are ________.
A. Read only
B. Read & Write
C. Write only
D. No Access
Answer: C

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NO.15 .If Robert disables AppleTalk in the Directory Access utility on his iMac running Mac OS X v 10.3,
what is the result?
A. Robert cannot print to AppleTalk printers from his iMac.
B. Users on other computers cannot connect to Robert's iMac via AFP.
C. Robert iMac no longer discovers servers via AppleTalk.
D. Robert cannot connect to an AFP file server from his iMac.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 9L0-407
Exam Name: Apple (Mac Integration Basics 10.7 Exam )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 45 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 HOTSPOT
In the screenshot, click the Icon of the preference pane where you turn on the OS X personal firewall.
Answer:

NO.2 What Windows Server technology provides directory and authentication services.?
A. Exchange Directory
B. LDAP Directory
C. Active Directory
D. Open Directory
Answer: C

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NO.3 From your Mac, you want to access mail, calendars, and contacts served by a Microsoft Exchange
Server.
What is the earliest version of Exchange Server for which Lion provides built-in support for this task?
A. Microsoft Exchange Server 2003
B. Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 with Service Pack 1 Update Rollup 4
C. Microsoft Exchange Server 2003 with Service Pack 2
D. Microsoft Exchange Server 2000 with Service Pack 4
E. Microsoft Exchange Server 2010
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 9L0-518
Exam Name: Apple (OS X Server Essentials 10.8 Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 116 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Which statement best describes how Time Machine stores files from an OS X Mountain Lion
computer, when backing up to a directly-connected FireWire hard disk drive?
A. Each file is saved to the external hard disk once. File changes are stored in a database on the
external hard disk.
B. Each file is rewritten to the external hard disk during each backup.
C. Each file is saved to the external hard disk once. Files that do not change between backups are
represented by hard linksto save space.
D. Each file is saved to the external hard disk once. Files that do not change between backups are
represented by symbolic links tosave space.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statement about Gatekeeper is TRUE?
A. Gatekeeper can ONLY be disabled using a configuration profile.
B. Standard users can bypass Gatekeeper.
C. Only the root user can disable Gatekeeper.
D. Only administrator users can bypass Gatekeeper.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statement best describes the function of Gatekeeper?
A. To prevent users from opening untrusted applications.
B. To prevent users from downloading untrusted applications.
C. To prevent users from installing untrusted applications.
D. To prevent users from installing viruses and trojan horses.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What advantage is gained by configuring the Contacts service in OS X Server to provide LDAP
searches?
A. It lets admins integrate Microsoft Exchange Server with the Contacts service.
B. It enables third-party contact management apps to be integrated with the Contacts service.
C. It eliminates the need for users to configure the Contacts app to perform LDAP searches.
D. It lets the Contacts service sync contact modifications to the LDAP server.
Answer: C

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NO.5 When a user logs in, which task is NOT performed by the user's loginwindow or launchd
processes?
A. Launch items in /Library/LaunchDaemons.
B. Launch Dock and Finder.
C. Launch Login Items specified in Users & Groups preferences.
D. Configure input device and system settings according to System Preferences.
Answer: A

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NO.6 In OS X Mountain Lion, which TWO types of file service hosts can you browse in the Network
folder? (Select 2)
A. WebDAV
B. SMB
C. DFS
D. FTP
E. AFP
Answer: B,E

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NO.7 What is the minimum amount of RAM required to install and run OS X Server on an OS X
Mountain Lion computer?
A. 2 GB
B. 4 GB
C. 6 GB
D. 8 GB
Answer: A

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NO.8 You want to secure the communication between the Calendar service in OS X Server and its
Calendar clients in OS X Mountain Lion. In Server app, which of these can you use to achieve
your goal?
A. A complex global password policy
B. An SSH tunnel
C. An SSL certificate and the HTTPS protocol
D. A Kerberos Ticket Granting Ticket (TGT)
Answer: C

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NO.9 If you use the Get Info window to change Sharing & Permissions settings on a file or folder,
Finder
preserves and can revert to the previous settings until the window is closed.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.10 Using Server app, you are configuring email alerts to be sent to an OS X Server system
administrator. Which TWO of these server events can you set to trigger an alert? (Select 2)
A. A user has exceeded his or her assigned disk quota for file sharing.
B. New software updates are available for the server.
C. An unsuccessful attempt was made to log in with the root account.
D. A certificate has expired or is about to expire.
E. The number of files on the server has exceeded a specified number.
Answer: A,B

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Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Multiprotocol Label Switching)
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Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Which of the following statements best describes downstream unsolicited label distribution?
A. An LER may answer requests for label mappings immediately, without waiting for a label mapping from
the next-hop.
B. An LER may advertise label mappings to all peers for which it might be a next-hop for a given FEC.
C. An LER propagates a label mapping downstream for a FEC. only if it has a label mapping for the FEC
next-hop.
D. An LER will only distribute a label for a FEC when it has been requested to do so.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Router R3 signals an LSP, reserving 1Gbps bandwidth on a 10Gbps link. RSVP configuration limits
reservable bandwidth to 20 percent on the egress interface. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The egress RSVP interface has 80 percent bandwidth unreserved.
B. LSPs can reserve an additional 9.9 Gbps bandwidth on this RSVP interface.
C. The head end reserves 100Mbps for the LSP
D. The egress RSVP interface has 1 Gbps bandwidth unreserved.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Click on the exhibit button below.
Assuming that LSP R1-R2-R3 requests the default fast reroute configuration, which router becomes a
DMP for the detour tunnels?
A. Router R1
B. Router R2
C. Router R3
D. Router R4
E. Router R5
Answer: E

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NO.4 Click on the exhibit button below.
Consider the following:
-Routers R1 and R4 are in Area 1.
-Routers R4 and R5 in Area 0.
-Routers R5 and R3 are in Area 2.
To support LDP-over-RSVP tunnels between routers R1 and R3 over path R1-R4-R5-R3, with which
routers will router R5 require targeted sessions? (Choose two)
A. Router R1
B. Router R4
C. Router R2
D. Router R3
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Click on the exhibit button below.
Given the configuration below, what is the system ID of the destination node?
A. 10.32.1.2
B. 10.1.478
C. 1048.1.1
D. Cannot tell from this configuration
E. 10.1.2.2
Answer: B

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NO.6 Click on the exhibit button below.
With fast reroute enabled, and given the following:
-The protected LSP path is R1-R2-R3.
-All links are of equal cost.
Which of the following statements is true? (Choose two)
A. Router R1 is the LSP originator and is also a PLR.
B. With one-to-one link or node protection, the detour LSP path is R1-R4-R5-R2-R3.
C. With one-to-one link or node protection, the detour LSP path is R1-R4-R5-R3.
D. If the R2-R3 link fails, router R3 becomes a PLR
E. None of the nodes can be protected with FRR.
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Which command can be used to verify the LDP settings for label distribution and retention?
A. show router ldp default
B. show router ldp parameters
C. show router ldp settings
D. show router mpls settings
E. show router mpls label-options
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the significance of receiving a packet with the bottom MPLS label S bit set to 1?
A. It results in forwarding based on the next packet header.
B. It indicates that the label is the bottom of the MPLS label stack.
C. It indicates that the label is the top of the MPLS label stack.
D. Any LSR that receives an S bit set to 1 must discard the packet.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following message types does RSVP use to set up an LSP? (Choose two)
A. Path message
B. iLER message
C. Resv message
D. LSP setup call request
E. eLER message
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 Which of the following statements best describe MPLS fast reroute characteristics? (Choose two)
A. Fast reroute requires you to manually define detour paths.
B. Fast reroute provides path protection close to the failure point
C. Fast reroute performs automatic path calculation and signaling.
D. Fast reroute protects both primary and secondary paths.
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 What is the common usage of the MPLS EXP bits?
A. Each implementation can use them as they see fit.
B. They are used to carry the Ethertype value.
C. They are used to carry the TTL value.
D. They are used to carry QoS classification.
E. They are used to carry fragmentation flag information
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following indicates the path over which an LSP's tail end router will return an RSVP RESV
message?
A. The IGP FIB.
B. The Reservation State Block (RSB)
C. The Path State Block (PSB)
D. The opaque database.
Answer: C

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NO.13 During node protection signaling, the PLR knows the address of the MP from which of the following
methods?
A. The PLR issues a RSVP path message to the destination router to request the address of the MP.
B. The PLR learns the address of the MP from the ERO.
C. The PLR learns the address of the MP from the RRO
D. The PLR learns the address of the MP from the targeted RSVP hello message.
E. The PLR does not need to know the address of the MP.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Assume that, on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, an LSP is configured with one-to-one FRR and node
protection. Which of the following statements are FALSE? (Choose two)
A. Each PLR signals a detour LSP that avoids the downstream node. If the downstream node cannot be
avoided, a detour LSP that avoids the downstream link is signaled.
B. The detour LSP can take one or more hops before merging back on the protected LSP.
C. The merge point of the protected LSP must be the next-next-hop node
D. The ingress router will set the local protection desired flag in the session attribute object of the path
message to inform all routers along the protected LSP path to establish detour LSPs.
E. The label recording desired flag must be set in the session attribute object in order for the PLR to know
what label to swap when using the detour LSP.
Answer: C,E

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NO.15 Click on the exhibit button below.
With fast reroute enabled, and given the following:
-Two protected LSPs with the path R1-R2-R3
-Both LSPs enable facility bypass and link protection.
When router R1 is the PLR, which router becomes the MP?
A. Router R1
B. Router R2
C. Router R3
D. Router R4
E. Router R5
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following statements regarding LSP path configuration are true? (Choose three)
A. The path must include at least one hop.
B. The path may be used multiple times in a single LSP.
C. The path may comprise loose hop entries only.
D. The path must define the LSP's tail end.
E. The path may be used for multiple LSPs.
Answer: C,E

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NO.17 Which of the following is defined by the following statement? All label mappings received from all peer
LSRs are saved.
A. Conservative label retention
B. Liberal label retention.
C. Downstream on demand.
D. Downstream unsolicited.
Answer: B

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NO.18 You wish to advertise LDP labels for all local networks; which is the most effective policy statement to
use?
A. from prefix-list direct
B. match local
C. from protocol direct
D. match protocol direct
E. from protocol local
Answer: C

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NO.19 In MPLS, labels are distributed in the opposite direction of the data flow.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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NO.20 Click on the exhibit button below.
Given the output below, which of the following statements are true? (Choose three)
A. A packet arriving with label 131066 and destined for prefix 10.10.10.243/32 will be forwarded out
interface 1/1/4, with label 131070.
B. LDP ECMP is enabled.
C. The router ¯ s sys t e m add r ess i s 10 . 10 . 10 . 242 / 32 .
D. There are multiple LSPs to reach FEC 10.10.10.244/32.
E. The router cannot receive any unlabeled packets destined for prefix 10.10.10 223/32.
Answer: A,B,D

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Exam Code: 3I0-010
Exam Name: ACI (ACI - Operations Certificate)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 342 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 When should discrepancies between front-office and back-office systems be resolved?
A. by the end of the trading day
B. on the next business day
C. on the value date
D. as soon as they become apparent
Answer: D

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NO.2 If the EUR/USD is quoted to you as 1.1050-53, what does this price represent?
A. EUR per USD
B. USD per EUR
C. the interest rate differential between EUR and USD
D. the fact that one USD is worth more than one EUR
Answer: B

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NO.3 The control failings involving Barings and Daiwa highlight the critical importance of what operational risk
management practice?
A. the taping of conversations between counterparties
B. model signing-off and implementation controls
C. the separation between front/back office duties
D. the existence of contingency plans
Answer: C

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NO.4 Physical securities reconciliation software packages are based on:
A. SWIFT message type 5XX
B. SWIFT message type 2XX
C. SWIFT message type 320
D. SWIFT message type 400
Answer: A

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NO.5 The prompt sending and checking of confirmations is considered a best practice when dealing in:
A. amounts higher than USD 10,000,000.00 or the equivalent in other currencies
B. amounts higher than USD 1,000,000.00 or the equivalent in other currencies
C. any amount unless dealt via a broker
D. any amount by any counterparty
Answer: D

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NO.6 In FX swaps, the rate of the spot leg
A. may be freely chosen by the quoting party as long as both parties agree on it
B. must always be fixed immediately at the current mid rate, to reflect the rate at the time the deal was
made
C. should be fixed immediately within the current spread, to reflect current rates at the time the
transaction was made
D. should always be fixed off the current spread in order not to be mistaken for a spot FX transaction
Answer: C

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NO.7 How many characters does a BIC have? (Under ISO standard 9362, 2nd edition)
A. 6 or 9 characters
B. 9 or 12 characters
C. 7 or 10 characters
D. 8 or 11 characters
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following is the main objective of position-keeping?
A. measuring market exposure
B. defining capital adequacy
C. evaluating country risk
D. monitoring counterparty credit risk
Answer: A

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NO.9 Today is the fixing date for 6x9 FRA that you sold at 5.50% and for which the FRABBA LIBOR is now
6.00%. Which of the following is true?
A. You will pay a cash settlement to the counterparty
B. You will receive the cash settlement
C. There is no cash settlement pending
D. There is insufficient information to make a determination
Answer: A

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NO.10 Your money market dealer has lent GBP 5,000,000.00 at 4 3/4% for 6 months (183 days). How much
must the counterparty pay back to you in capital plus accrued interest at maturity?
A. GBP 5,117,123.29
B. GBP 5,119,075.00
C. GBP 5,119,075.34
D. GBP 5,120,729.17
Answer: C

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NO.11 What type of documentation is recommended for repos in the international markets?
A. An Overseas Securities Lenders Agreement
B. A ISDA Master Repurchase Agreement
C. A SIFMA/ICMA Global Master Repurchase Agreement
D. An International Securities Lenders Agreement
Answer: C

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NO.12 You have just opened a position in EUR/USD that you run overnight. What risk is present?
A. settlement, counterparty and equity risk
B. only counterparty risk
C. only currency and interest rate risks
D. settlement, counterparty and market risk
Answer: D

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NO.13 What is a feature of multilateral netting?
A. there are no more than two participants involved in the netting process
B. there is no redistribution of default risk
C. there is a central clearing house
D. no legal entity is required
Answer: C

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NO.14 What does "modified following business day convention" mean?
A. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the following business day, unless that day extends into
the next month, in which case it is dated the preceding business day
B. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the following business day
C. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the preceding business day
D. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the next business day that corresponds to the same
numerical day of the month as the preceding payment
Answer: A

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NO.15 A collateral pool can be defined as:
A. assets lent by members of a payment system collectively available to the system as collateral to enable
them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
B. liabilities owned by members of a payments system collectively available to the system as collateral to
enable them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
C. assets owned by members of a payment system collectively available to the system as collateral to
enable them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
D. assets swapped by members of a payment system collectively available to the system as collateral to
enable them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
Answer: C

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NO.16 Under normal circumstances, which of the following is a non-negotiable instrument?
A. a Medium Term Note
B. a Bankers Acceptance
C. a Money Market Deposit
D. a Treasury Bill
Answer: C

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NO.17 The maximum term for which a London Certificate of Deposit may be issued is:
A. 1 year
B. 3 years
C. 5 years
D. 10 years
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is a nostro bank account?
A. an account held with another bank
B. an account another bank holds with you
C. a trust account
D. a suspense account
Answer: A

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NO.19 The notional amount in an interest rate swap is:
A. the sum of all the fixed and floating rate payments
B. the net difference between fixed and floating rate payments
C. the principal amount on which floating and fixed interest payments is calculated
D. the amount at which the two counterparties can close-out their transaction
Answer: C

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NO.20 You have two nostro accounts in USD, one account is long USD 5 million and the other is short USD 5
million. What action should be taken to reconcile the accounts?
A. No action is required. The credit interest earned on the credit balance will offset the debit interest
incurred on the short balance
B. You should borrow USD 5 million to cover the short balance and leave the long balance as it is
C. You should lend the surplus USD 5 million in order to overdraft charges on the short balance with the
interest earned on the loan
D. You should instruct the bank with the long balance to pay USD 5 million to the other bank
Answer: D

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